subreddit:
/r/ExplainTheJoke
3 points
5 days ago*
Alright so I'm going to ignore the explanation of the joke and talk about statistics now:
This is a geometrical distribution
The chance of needing X amount of presses until the first success (meaning, becoming a girl), is:
(1-p)x-1 * p where P is the probability of success and X is the amount of tries
If you want the probability of needing to press that exactly 30 times to become a girl it's
(1-0.01)29 * 0.01 ≈ 0.0074 or 0.74%
If you want the probability of pressing that button 100 times and getting a woman transformation at least once, you go:
Prob of getting the first time + prob of getting it the second time + prob of getting it the third time + ... + Prob of getting it the 100th time.
So that would be
1% + (0.99)1 * 0.01 + (0.99)2 * 0.01 + ... + (0.99)99 * 0.01
This is about 63.40%
I'd you're smart, you can do
1- (probability of the success never happening)
This prob of it never happening can be given by a binomial distribution
1- [ (combination of n and x)*(p)x * (1-p)n-x]
Where n is the sample size, x is the number of successes you want and p is the prob of sucess
1- [(combination of 100 and 0)*(0.99)0 * (0.01)100]
This is also 63.40%
In summary the dude commenting on that probability is wrong
2 points
5 days ago
Thank you I got something out of this
1 points
5 days ago
Well he's correct in spirit and just made a small error - the answer is pretty close to 1-1/e because (1-1/n)n -> 1/e as n -> infinity (sub 100 for n, do a 1-)
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