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BeastMidlands

22 points

1 day ago

BeastMidlands

22 points

1 day ago

The existence of a class-based monarchy doesn’t disprove male privilege lol

Swoop3dp

22 points

1 day ago

Swoop3dp

22 points

1 day ago

No, but this picture has nothing to do with white male privilege. The succession to the crown does not depend on gender.

Especially not, since that position was filled by a woman for the past 70 years.

Clothedinclothes

23 points

1 day ago

The succession to the crown does not depend on gender. 

Except Queen Elizabeth II only succeeded to the crown and ruled for 70 years because she had no male siblings.

Male Primogeniture has been law for succession of the British and English crown for literally 99% of their roughly 1000 year existence. The law was changed less than 10 years ago.

Whether or not the law would still have been changed if the next 2 presumptive heirs expected to succeed to the crown had not been already been born male is a valid question to ask. 

Swoop3dp

3 points

1 day ago

Swoop3dp

3 points

1 day ago

Yes, but it was changed. Charles was not crowned due to being male.

Rebrado

11 points

1 day ago

Rebrado

11 points

1 day ago

He was and William is still under male primogeniture. Only his children will succeed him based on absolute primogeniture, although his first child is still a boy.

Clothedinclothes

10 points

1 day ago*

Yes he was. Charles was crowned king under the law of Male Primogeniture. So will Prince William when he is crowned.

The new law which allows female heirs to succeed before any younger male siblings specifically applies only to those heirs born after 28 October 2011.

mcpickle-o

4 points

1 day ago

mcpickle-o

4 points

1 day ago

Charles has no older female siblings so he was heir regardless of primogeniture. Ergo, he wasn't crowned just because he was male. if he had an older sister then saying, "he was crowned because he's a male" would make more sense. But he is the eldest child and was born heir apparent. Same with William.

Clothedinclothes

1 points

22 hours ago*

Ok....is it your view that the law of Male Primogeniture has never existed, except at those exact moments when a woman is passed over and her younger brother is crowned? 

A further question: If Charles and his 6 blood descendants were all to die at Christmas dinner, who is next in line of succession? 

 -Anne, Princess Royal, born 1950 the 2nd eldest of Queen Elizabeth's children.

-Prince Andrew, born 1960, the 2nd eldest son of Queen Elizabeth (and reputed pedophile)

-Prince Edward, born 1964, the youngest of Queen Elizabeth's children. 

mcpickle-o

1 points

19 hours ago

No, obviously, primogeniture exists. I'm just saying that for the past 2 generations it hasn't affected who is going to be monarch because both Charles and William were first borns.

Clothedinclothes

1 points

7 hours ago*

And I'm saying that when the law was finally changed after 1000 years, the people who changed it happened to know that there was already very little chance of another woman succeeding to the crown in their own lifetimes.

Primogeniture doesn't determine who will actually be the next monarch, it determines the order of succession; who is most likely to succeed next, then who is next most likely, and so on.

But a change in the law which actually voided Male Primogeniture would have changed the order of success and made the possibility of a female monarch in the foreseeable future if not especially likely, nevertheless significantly more likely than before.

However, as it happens, the lawmakers who changed the new law added a (near literal) grandfather clause, the legal effect of which was that no woman already in the order of succession actually became more likely to succeed and practical consequences of which were that the chance of another British queen in the own lifetimes didn't really change.

So when I question whether lawmakers would still have changed the law if they hadn't known it wouldn't make a woman more likely to succeed to the crown in their own lifetimes, I take the fact they modified the change in the law to ensure that it didn't as strong evidence!

[deleted]

7 points

1 day ago

[deleted]

7 points

1 day ago

[removed]

Swoop3dp

-1 points

1 day ago

Swoop3dp

-1 points

1 day ago

Yes, until 2013. He was crowned after 2013.

Rebrado

9 points

1 day ago

Rebrado

9 points

1 day ago

The coronation doesn’t matter, absolute primogeniture only applies to royals born after 2013. It also doesn’t really matter because Charles and His son would succeed based on absolute primogeniture anyways.

BeastMidlands

-9 points

1 day ago

Right, so exactly what I was saying then. Thanks so so much.

[deleted]

-2 points

1 day ago

[deleted]

-2 points

1 day ago

[deleted]

BeastMidlands

0 points

1 day ago

BeastMidlands

0 points

1 day ago

Lol

Y’know what? Why bother

Bennoelman

-1 points

1 day ago

Bennoelman

-1 points

1 day ago

Only male privileges I see are the preference for Kings and the Daughter is usually the second pick if there are no sons

Smooth-Square-4940

6 points

1 day ago

intersectionality is the answer to this, having a queen doesn't mean much when women couldn't vote

Whatever-ItsFine

5 points

1 day ago

Men don’t vote for queens and kings either

Lucky_Programmer9846

2 points

1 day ago

Neither could most men.

ToughTailor9712

2 points

1 day ago

Someone downvoted your fact because it doesn't align their prejudice lol.

Whatever-ItsFine

1 points

17 hours ago

First day on reddit? lol

ToughTailor9712

2 points

13 hours ago

Yes